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AP EAMCET2010MathematicsProbability

If the mean and variance of a binomial variable X are 2 and 1 respectively, then P(X 1) is equal to

Options

  1. A2 3
  2. B15 16
  3. C7 8
  4. D4 5

Correct answer

B. 15 16

Step-by-step solution

Mean n p=2 and variance n p q=1 then q= 1 2 , p= 1 2 and n=4 ( p=1-q) Required probability =P(X 1)=1-P(X < 1)=1- ( 1 16 )= 15 16

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