AP EAMCET201920 Apr 2019Morning ShiftMathematicsBinomial TheoremActual
If ( (1-p x)⁻¹ (1-q x) =a₀+a₁ x+a₂ x^2+a₃ x^3+ ), then (a_n= )
Options
- A( p^ n+1 -q^ n+1 q-p )
- B( p^ n+1 -q^ n+1 p-q )
- C( p^n-q^n q-p )
- D( p^n-q^n p-q )
Correct answer
B. ( p^ n+1 -q^ n+1 p-q )
Step-by-step solution
Since, ( aligned & (1-p x)⁻¹ (1-q x) =a₀+a₁ x+a₂ x^2+a₃ x^3+ & (1-p x)⁻¹=1+p x+p^2 x^2+p^3 x^3+ +p^n x^n+ aligned ) and ((1-q x)⁻¹=1+q x+q^2 x^2+q^3 x^3+ +q^n x^n+ ) Now, coefficient of (x^n ) in the expansion of ( aligned & (1-p x)⁻¹(1-q x)⁻¹ & =p^n+p^ n-1 q+p^ n-2 q^2+p^ n-3 q^3+ +q^n aligned ) ( aligned & a_n= p^n (1- ( q p )^ n+1 ) 1- q p = p^n (p^ n+1 -q^ n+1 ) p (p-q) p^ n+1 & = p^ n+1 -q^ n+1 p-q & So, a_n= p^ n+1 -q^ n+1 p-q aligned ) Hence, option (2) is correct.