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JEE Advanced 2018Paper 2
Exam
JEE Advanced
Year
2018
Paper
Paper 2
Subject
Mathematics
Chapter
Inverse Trigonometric Functions

JEE Advanced 2018 · Paper 2 · Mathematics · Inverse Trigonometric Functions

For any positive integer n , define f _ n : (0, ∞) → R as f _ n (x)...

For any positive integer nn, define fn:(0,∞)→R{f}_{n}: \left(0, \infty\right) \to R as

fn(x)=∑i=1ntan⁡−1(11+(x+j)(x+j−1)){f}_{n}\left(x\right) = {∑}_{i = 1}^{n}\tan^{- 1}\left(\dfrac{1}{1 + \left(x + j\right)\left(x + j - 1\right)}\right) for all x∈(0,∞)x \in \left(0, \infty\right) .

((Here, the inverse trigonometric function tan⁡−1x\tan^{- 1} x assumes values in \left(- \dfrac{\pi}{2}, \dfrac{\pi}{2}\right)))

Then, which of the following statement(s) is (are) TRUE?

Options

  1. A∑j=15tan⁡2(fj(0))=55{∑}_{j = 1}^{5}\tan^{2}\left({f}_{j}\left(0\right)\right) = 55
  2. B∑j=110(1+fj′(0))sec⁡2(fj(0))=10{∑}_{j = 1}^{10}\left(1 + {{f}_{j}}^{'}\left(0\right)\right)\sec^{2}\left({f}_{j}\left(0\right)\right) = 10
  3. CFor any fixed positive integer nn,lim⁡x→∞tan⁡(fn(x))=1n\lim_{x \to \infty}\tan \left({f}_{n}\left(x\right)\right) = \dfrac{1}{n}
  4. DFor any fixed positive integer nn, lim⁡x→∞sec⁡2(fn(x))=1\lim_{x \to \infty}\sec^{2}\left({f}_{n}\left(x\right)\right) = 1

Correct answer

D. For any fixed positive integer nn, lim⁡x→∞sec⁡2(fn(x))=1\lim_{x \to \infty}\sec^{2}\left({f}_{n}\left(x\right)\right) = 1

Step-by-step solution

{f}_{n}\left(x\right) = \mathop{∑}_{j = 1}^{n}\tan^{- 1}\left(\dfrac{\left(x + j\right) - \left(x + j - 1\right)}{1 + \left(x + j\right)\left(x + j - 1\right)}\right)fn(x)=∑j=1n[tan⁡−1(x+j)−tan⁡−1(x+j−1)]{f}_{n}\left(x\right) = \mathop{∑}_{j = 1}^{n}\left[\tan^{- 1}\left(x + j\right) - \tan^{- 1}\left(x + j - 1\right)\right]
fn(x)=tan⁡−1(x+n)−tan⁡−1x{f}_{n}\left(x\right) = \tan^{- 1}\left(x + n\right) - \tan^{- 1}x
∴∴ tan⁡(fn(x))=tan⁡[tan⁡−1(x+n)−tan⁡−1x]\tan \left({f}_{n}\left(x\right)\right) = \tan \left[\tan^{- 1}\left(x + n\right) - \tan^{- 1}x\right]

tan⁡(fn(x))=tan⁡[tan⁡−1(x+n)−x1+x(x+n)]\tan \left({f}_{n}\left(x\right)\right) = \tan \left[\tan^{- 1}\dfrac{\left(x + n\right) - x}{1 + x\left(x + n\right)}\right]
tan⁡(fn(x))=n1+x2+nx\tan \left({f}_{n}\left(x\right)\right) = \dfrac{n}{1 + {x}^{2} + nx},

so that lim⁡x→∞tan⁡(fn(x))=0\lim_{x \to \infty}\tan \left({f}_{n}\left(x\right)\right) = 0
∴∴ sec⁡2(fn(x))=1+tan⁡2(fn(x))\sec^{2}\left({f}_{n}\left(x\right)\right) = 1 + \tan^{2}\left({f}_{n}\left(x\right)\right)
sec⁡2(fn(x))=1+(n1+x2+nx)2\sec^{2}\left({f}_{n}\left(x\right)\right) = 1 + {\left(\dfrac{n}{1 + {x}^{2} + nx}\right)}^{2}
lim⁡x→∞sec⁡2(fn(x))=lim⁡x→∞1+(n1+x2+nx)2=1\lim_{x \to \infty}\sec^{2}\left({f}_{n}\left(x\right)\right) = \lim_{x \to \infty}1 + {\left(\dfrac{n}{1 + {x}^{2} + nx}\right)}^{2} = 1

Note that since 00 is not in domain so first two options are wrong

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