Which of the following statements is logically equivalent to (p q) ?

Step-by-step solution

The logical equivalence of the biconditional statement is given by: p q (p q) (q p) Taking the negation of both sides: (p q) ((p q) (q p)) Using De Morgan's laws: (p q) (q p) Since p q p q , we get: ( p q) ( q p) Applying De Morgan's laws again: (p q) (q p) Now, evaluating the expression p q : p q (p q) ( q p) ( p q) (q p) Using the distributive law: ( p q) ( p p) ( q q) ( q p) Since p p F and q q F : ( p q) (p q) Comparing the two results, we conclude that (p q) p q . Answer: p q